Dan, from what I can see, this topic is not about whether rifles were important or not, whether they were used in the Revolutionary War or French and Indian War, whether rifles are superior or inferior to smoothbores, whether the role of rifles has been overlooked, whether rifles are more accurate, whether smoothbores are inferior for hunting or survival. Those topics are interesting and you are passionate about them, but what does any of that have to do with the original question? How does that help us discern which originals that are now smoothbored, were that way originally? It doesn't. We can't reason it out except to note that (I am repeating myself):
1) Round barreled rifles are extremely rare in the period from 1750-1810, so if we see a rifle-built gun from that period with a round barrel and it is now smooth, it is reasonable to surmise it was always smoothbored.
2) Octagon to round barrels were commonly fowler barrels and smoothbored, so guns with octagon to round barrels from this era that are smooth now were likely smooth to begin with.
3) Among octagon-barreled rifle-built guns of the period there is a preponderence which are now smoothbored from certain geographical regions, so it is likely that many were smoothbored to begin with.
I am not trying to insult, but your arguments seem to be self-defeating. See if you agree with this logic (I am using your position in A, and an undisputable fact in B):
A) Rifles are superior in every way to smoothbored guns and the later the date, the more people realized this
1) They save on powder and lead by being smaller bored
2) Are more accurate and kill game better
B) Many rifle-built guns from 1750-1810 are now smoothbored
Therefore:
C) They must have been smoothbored to begin with, because a guy would have to be an idiot to make a useless smoothbore out of a rifle. In fact, it's not clear why they were not converted to rifled bores. Somebody wasn't thinking straight.