I've got a question for those who claim that bouncing the ramrod on the ball when it can't be "pushed" any further down the bore, actually "deforms" the ball. Has such "deformation" actually been verified, and HOW was it "verified"?
The reason I ask this is, I am a ramrod "flipper" and after pushing the ball down as far as I can push, I give the ramrod a few flips until I get a bit of bounce back, which usually occurs on the third flip of the ramrod.
When I lived in Alaska, I used hardened balls for moose hunting, I cast .570 round balls and added a bit of tin to get the hardening for additional penetration and punching through big bone/rib if encountered.
I saw NO difference in the "flips" needed before getting the first bit of bounce with the ramrod when using a soft pure lead ball vs a hardened ball. One would think that if deformation of the ball was actually taking place during the flipping, it would take MORE flips to deform the harder balls before the ramrod's first bounce but I seen no indication of such.
So,... how do we know that flipping a wooden ramrod down on a ball that is sitting on/or close to the powder charge (which isn't a solid surface) actually causes ball deformation, and why is there no difference in the flips needed to create the same bounce when the hardness of the balls differ?
IMO,.... shooting targets when comparing different loading techniques (to "seat a ball") has some variables, and provides no real concrete evidence whether deformation happens or not. It'll take actual ball measurements (after a ball is seated) to convince me deformation can/or does occur under the aforementioned way of loading I've described above.